Which of the following statements accurately describes one characteristic of histones?

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Which of the following statements correctly describe one characteristic of histones?
Which of the following statements accurately describes between DNA replication in prokaryotes and DNA replication in eukaryotes?
Which one of the following accurately describes a difference between the leading and lagging strands of DNA?
Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between ATP and the nucleotides used during DNA synthesis?

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Question	Answer
Which of the following statements describes the process of transformation in bacteria?	External DNA is taken into a cell, becoming part of the cell's genome.
Which of the following facts did Hershey and Chase make use of in trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material?	DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.
In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of a molecule of DNA, which of the following combinations of base pairs will be found?	G + C = T + A-
For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. Why won't this experiment work?	Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins
What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the two strands that make up the DNA double helix?	The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to 5' to 3' direction of the other strand
In E. coli, which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction?	DNA polymerase III catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction
Which of the following characteristics of eukaryotic telomeres cause them to replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome?	gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand template
: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5' An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. What is the sequence of the primer?	5' A C G U U A G G 3'
In E. coli, to repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act?	nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase.
In E. coli, what is the function of DNA polymerase III?	to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
Describes the difference between ATP and the nucleotides used during DNA synthesis	Duplication of the chromosomal DNA
Describes the difference between the leading and the lagging strands of DNA during DNA replication.	The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
Why does a new DNA strand elongate only in the 5' to 3' direction during DNA replication?	DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3' end.
What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication?	It joins Okazaki fragments together
.After the first replication was observed in their experiments testing the nature of DNA replication, Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following conclusions?	Replication is not conservative.
You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. Which two classes of DNA do these different samples represent	leading strands and Okazaki fragments.
Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is the template?	one strand of the DNA molecule
Referring to the figure, what bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds?	A, G, A, C, G, A, C
What are telomeres?	a segment of DNA occurring at the ends of chromosomes in eukaryotic cells
Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide. Research has shown that telomerase can extend the life span of cultured human cells. How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?	Telomerase can eliminate telomere shortening and slows aging.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the structure of a eukaryotic chromosome?	It is a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins.
Which of the following molecular characteristics cause histones to bind tightly to DNA?	Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged
Which of the following structural characteristics is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?	Histones are positively charged.
Refer to the metabolic pathway illustrated. If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the geneencoding enzyme A would be able to grow on medium supplemented with which nutrient(s)?	nutrients A and B
the metabolic pathway illustrated. If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the geneencoding enzyme B would be able to grow on medium supplemented with which nutrient(s)?	nutrient C only
Which sequences of nucleotides are possible in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Leu-Ile-Val	3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'.
What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5′-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3′	Met-Ser-Ser-Leu-Ser-Leu
Which of the triplets below is a possible anticodon for a tRNA that transports proline to a ribosome?	3′-GGC-5′
Which of the following characteristics is directly related to the coding of a single amino acid during the process of translation?	the three-base sequence of mRNA
The genetic code is redundant. What is meant by this statement?	More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid
Once researchers identified DNA as the molecule responsible for transmitting heritable traits, Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanism of information transfer in eukaryotes that accomplishes this task?	Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.
Codons are three-base sequences in mRNA that specify the addition of a single amino acid to the growing protein chain during translation. How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare?	Codons are a nearly universal language among all organisms.
Which of the following processes occurs in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes?	transcription and translation occur simultaneously
Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the TATA box in the promoters of eukaryotes?	It is the recognition site for the binding of a specific transcription factor.
Which of the following statements correctly describes a ribozyme?	It is an RNA with catalytic activity.
Which of the following processes correctly describes alternative RNA splicing?	It can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA.
How does the primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell compare to the functional mRNA?	the primary transcript is larger than the mRNA
How does the primary transcript in the nucleus of a prokaryotic cell compare to the functional mRNA?	the primary transcript is larger than mRNA
Which of the following dipeptides will form from this mRNA?	proline-threonine
Which of the following anticodons in the first tRNA to bind will complement this mRNA?	3′-GGC-5′
During the elongation phase of translation, which site in the ribosome represents the location where a codon is being read?	A site
Which one of the following structures, if missing, would usually prevent translation from starting?	AUG codon
Which of the following processes occurs when termination of translation takes place?	A stop codon is reached.
Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?	Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.
An original section of DNA has the base sequence AGCGTTACCGT. A mutation in this DNA strand results in the base sequence AGGCGTTACCGT. What type of mutation does this change represent?	frameshift mutation
Rank the following one-base point mutations with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide (from most likely to least likely).	4, 3, 2, 1
Using the figure above, identify a 5′ → 3′ sequence of nucleotides in the DNA template strand for an mRNA coding for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Pro-Lys.	5-CTTCGGGAA-3
Which of the following molecules is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?	repressor
When taken up by a cell, which of the following molecules binds to a repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator	Inducer
Which of the following processes would result from a mutation that deactivates a regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell?	continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator
.For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following conditions must occur?	RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve an organism's survival by ________	allowing an organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
In positive control of several sugar metabolism-related operons, the cAMP receptor protein (CRP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. Which of the following environmental conditions causes an increase in CRP activity in stimulating transcription?	a decrease in glucose and an increase in cAMP
Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique If a researcher moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase (lacZ) gene and the permease (lacY) gene, which of the following results would be most likely?	The operon will still transcribe the lacZ and lacY genes, but the mRNA will not be translated
Which of the following results would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so that it could not bind the operator?	the continuous transcription of the operon's genes
Under what conditions does the trp repressor block transcription of the trp operon?	when the repressor binds to tryptophan
How does extracellular glucose inhibit transcription of the lac operon?	by reducing the levels of intracellular cAMP
Imagine that you've isolated a yeast mutant that contains histones resistant to acetylation. What phenotype would you predict for this mutant?	The mutant will show generally low levels of gene expression.
The reason for differences in the sets of proteins expressed in a nerve and a pancreatic cell of the same individual is that nerve and pancreatic cells contain different ________.	sets of regulatory proteins
.Which of the following functions are characteristic of general transcription factors in eukaryotes?	They bind to other proteins or to the TATA box.
How do steroid hormones produce their effects in cells?	By binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes
How are bacteria able to change their patterns of protein synthesis so quickly in response to environmental changes?	mRNAs that are produced are short-lived and degraded within a few minutes of being synthesized.
Which of the following methods is utilized by eukaryotes to control their gene expression that is different from the type of control found in bacteria?	transcriptional control
In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated for a cell to develop into a cancer cell. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated?	genes involved in control of the cell cycle
Which of the following statements correctly describes a characteristic of tumor-suppressor gene?	They encode proteins that help prevent uncontrolled cell growth.
Which of the following processes helps bacterial cells protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes (endonucleases)?	Adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?	III, II, IV, V, I
Which of the following methods would be most successful in attempting to introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell?	electroporation followed by recombination
Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes?	A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA. The method used to amplify DNA fragments is called polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Which of the following enzymes was used to produce the molecule of DNA in the figure?	a restriction enzyme
For which of the following processes can dideoxyribonucleotides be used?	to sequence a DNA fragment
What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) itself?	The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
Which of the following enzymes is required to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?	reverse transcriptase
Which of the following statements correctly describes how RNA interference (RNAi) silences selected genes?	Synthetic double-stranded RNA molecules trigger the breakdown of a gene's messenger RNA.
Which of the following processes is most like the formation of identical twins?	organismal cloning
In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?	Fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate.
Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning, there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following statements provides a likely explanation?	Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many
Which of the following statements correctly describes one of the main differences between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?	Embryonic stem cells can give rise to all cell types in the organism, and adult stem cells cannot.
The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked significantly different from her female parent. Why was this the case with this clone?	X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns
Suppose that a researcher is successful at producing induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) for replacement of pancreatic insulin-producing cells for people with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following could still pose problems for this individual?	All 3 of them
Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following safety measures is one that has been adopted by researchers?	Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments must be genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.
Which of the following information or processes does gene therapy require?	the ability to introduce the normal allele into the patient
What is the most favorable characteristic of retroviruses that makes them useful in gene therapy applications?	DNA copies of retroviral genomes become integrated into the genome of the infected cell.
Organisms share many conserved core processes and features, including transcription and translation, using a uniform genetic code. Select the appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the E. coli bacterial cell.	Nutrient broth to which ampicillin has been added.
Fossils found in strata reveal that ________.	older strata carry fossils that differ greatly from living organisms
Which of the following statements best explains why modification or change in an organ or tissue during the lifetime of an individual is not inherited?	Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes
For which one of the following observations were both Lamarck's hypothesis and Darwin's hypothesis in complete agreement?	Gradual evolutionary change explains why organisms are well-suited to their environments.
Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea, breeders have created the strains known as Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. Therefore, which of the following statements is correct?	There is enough heritable variation in the wild mustard to permit these different varieties.
What are adaptations?	inherited characteristics of organisms that enhance their survival
Which of these conditions are always true of populations evolving due to natural selection?	Conditions 1 and 2
Which one of the following statements best defines artificial selection?	Process of human directed breeding aimed to produce selective traits in selected species.
Which statement illustrates the connection between natural selection and overreproduction of a population?	Individuals with inherited traits that promote survival tend to have more surviving offspring.
Darwin used the phrase "descent with modification" to explain ________.	evolution of the unity and diversity of life
Which of the following statements describe evolution?	Natural selection chooses the most popular trait.
Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events under the influence of natural selection?	2 -> 4 -> 1 -> 3
Which one of the following observations did Darwin first make during his discovery of evolution?	There is variation in inherited traits.
If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would happen in environments that lack antibiotics?	These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.
Which of the following evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? All organisms ________.	all organisms use essentially the same genetic code
It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that ________.	island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors.
The greatest number of endemic species is expected in environments that are ________.	isolated and show little ecological diversity
How many distinct species, both living and extinct, are depicted in this tree?	six
Evolutionary trees such as this are properly understood by scientists to be ________.	hypotheses
Which species is most closely related to species W?	V is most closely related to species W
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?	II, III, I, IV
Why are fossils considered to be an incomplete record of evolution?	The fossil record is biased for organisms that had hard shells and skeletons
How does continental drift explain the uniqueness of Australian fauna?	The subsequent separation of the southern continents formed an island of marsupials.
The best classification system is that which most closely ________.	reflects evolutionary history
The following phylogeny shows six living species (a-f) and five ancestral (now extinct) species (#1-5) which of the following predictions would you make in terms of the structure of a particular enzyme?	The enzymes of species b and c are more similar to ancestor #4 than to ancestor 2
The term convergent evolution is most applicable to which of the following features?	the legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards
Which of the following statements is accurate with regard to a phylogeny, as represented by a phylogenetic tree?	Descendant groups (branches) from the same node likely share many derived characters.
Phylogenetic trees constructed from evidence from molecular systematics are based on similarities in ________.	mutations to homologous genes
These data would support which of the following conclusions?	Eukaryotes are more similar to archaea than to bacteria.
In the Figure above, which similarly inclusive taxon is represented as descending from the same common ancestor as Canidae?	Mustelidae
Based on the tree below, which statement is not correct?	Lizards are more closely related to salamanders than to humans.
Which of the following statements about horizontal gene transfer is accurate?	Horizontal gene transfer was quite common in the early stages of evolution of life on Earth.
You discover two trees that each have thorns to protect them from herbivores, but they are in different classes of plants, and many nonthorny plants are between them on the tree of life. What has happened?	convergent evolution

Which of the following statements correctly describe one characteristic of histones?

Which of the following statements accurately describes one characteristic of histones? Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead, it draws the nucleosomes together.

Which of the following statements accurately describes between DNA replication in prokaryotes and DNA replication in eukaryotes?

Which of the following statements accurately describes the differences between DNA replication in prokaryotes and DNA replication in eukaryotes? Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

Which one of the following accurately describes a difference between the leading and lagging strands of DNA?

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between the leading and the lagging strands of DNA during DNA replication? The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between ATP and the nucleotides used during DNA synthesis?

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between ATP and the nucleotides used during DNA synthesis? The nucleotides have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose.

Which of the following statements accurately describes one characteristic of histones?

Which of the following statements correctly describe one characteristic of histones?

Which of the following statements accurately describes between DNA replication in prokaryotes and DNA replication in eukaryotes?

Which one of the following accurately describes a difference between the leading and lagging strands of DNA?

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between ATP and the nucleotides used during DNA synthesis?

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