Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses?

An anaphylactic reaction constitutes what type of medical emergency? Cardiovascular Hematologic Immunologic Toxicologic

At what point should you make a preliminary transport decision? During scene size-up Once the preliminary assessment is complete After secondary assessment During reassessment

Once the preliminary assessment is complete 

You are dispatched to a home where you find a 45-year-old woman in apparent respiratory distress. She is using accessory muscles to help breathe and can only respond with short answers. What is the first step in your assessment process? Manage the airway Obtain vital signs Determine scene safety Perform a secondary assesssment

What mnemonic is used to determine a patient’s chief complaint? AVPU SAMPLE OPQRST TACOS

HIV is caused by what type of organism? Bacteria Fungus Protozoa Virus

Juandice is a sign of which disease?
a. HIV b. meningitis c. hepatitis d. herpes simplex

Why is tuberculosis not more common than it is? The BCG vaccine is 95% effective. Droplet nuclei that spread the infection have a very short lifespan. Infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient. Human beings have natural immunity.

Infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient.

Which of the following diseases is the most virulent? HIV Hepatitis B Herpes simplex Tuberculosis

What is an index of suspicion? An awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist An outcome of scene size-up that indicates whether law enforcement should be called The ability to determine how contagious an infectious disease is A level of understanding whereby you can determine multiple NOIs

An awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist

Which of the following best describes a communicable disease? The growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another A disease that is transmitted through contaminated drinking water Presence of infectious organisms on or in objects

A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another  

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. a fever B. abdominal pain C. a low blood glucose level D. seizures

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. B. medical emergency. C. trauma emergency. D. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency.

C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:

A) the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
B) the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.
C) most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.
D) it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.

A) the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. Select one: A. address the patient's symptoms B. confirm the patient's diagnosis C. correct the patient's underlying problem D. reduce the need for transport to the hospital

A. address the patient's symptoms

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. field diagnosis B. associated symptoms C. nature of illness D. medical history

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:A) is less resistant to treatment.
B) is a more contagious type of disease.
C) has a greater ability to produce disease.
D) leads to chronic infection after exposure.

C) has a greater ability to produce disease.

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:

A) perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.
B) transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.
C) limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
D) have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.

C) limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Alzheimer disease B. Schizophrenia C. Depression D. Substance abuse

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm D. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity

B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. parasitic infection. B. pandemics. C. uncontrolled outbreaks. D. epidemics.

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. B. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. C. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. D. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

B. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. B. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. D. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

D. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration B. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. H1N1 B. Avian flu C. Whooping cough D. MRSA

An infectious disease is most accurately defined as:
a. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms b. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body c. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other meds d. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional

a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of harmful organisms within the body

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Primary assessment B. Baseline vital signs C. Index of suspicion D. Medical history

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. cardiac B. endocrine C. respiratory D. neurologic

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. after the primary assessment has been completed. B. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. C. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. D. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.

A. after the primary assessment has been completed.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. B. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. C. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.

B. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

A) take standard precautions.
B) notify law enforcement.
C) quickly access the patient.
D) contact medical control.

A) take standard precautions.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

A) right ventricle. B) left ventricle. C) left atrium. D) right atrium.

What is the function of the left atrium? A. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries. D. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.

B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A. enters the systemic circulation. B. flows into the pulmonary arteries. C. has a high concentration of oxygen. D. was received directly from the aorta.

B. flows into the pulmonary arteries.

which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood? a. pulmonary veins b. inferior vena cava c. superior vena cava d. pulmonary arteries

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated. B. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. D. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.

C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation.

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: A. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. B. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. C. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.

A. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles.

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. excitability. B. contractility. C. impulsivity. D. automaticity.

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the:

A) pons and medulla.
B) parietal lobe.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) autonomic nervous system.

D) autonomic nervous system.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) constriction of blood vessels in the muscles
B) dilation of blood vessels in the muscles
C) increases in the heart and respiratory rates
D) constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system

A) constriction of blood vessels in the muscles

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:

A) prepares the body to handle stress.
B) slows the heart and respiratory rates.
C) dilates the blood vessels in the muscles.
D) causes an increase in the heart rate.

B) slows the heart and respiratory rates.

When the myocardium requires more oxygen: A. the heart contracts with less force. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart rate decreases significantly. D. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.

B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate.

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________.A) vena cava, coronary veins
B) aorta, inferior vena cava
C) coronary arteries, aorta
D) coronary sinus, vena cava

C) coronary arteries, aorta

Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output? A. increased heart rate and increased stroke volume B. decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate C. decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume D. decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate

A. increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: A. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. B. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. C. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle.

B. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle.

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: A. iliac arteries. B. brachial arteries. C. carotid arteries. D. subclavian arteries.

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A. umbilicus.
B. iliac crest.
C. nipple line.
D. pubic symphysis.

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: A. femoral arteries. B. peroneal arteries. C. anterior tibial arteries. D. posterior tibial arteries.

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. abdomen. D. legs.

The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to: A. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. B. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen. C. transport at once and reanalyze his rhythm en route. D. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly.

B. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen.

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to:

A) have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient.
B) quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button.
C) assess the effectiveness of the bystanders' CPR.
D) request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.

A) have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient.

Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct?

A) The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse.
B) CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED.
C) The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient.
D) Defibrillation is the first link in the American Heart Association chain of survival.

C) The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient.

The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is:

A) inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes.
B) malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor.
C) failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged.
D) inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation.

C) failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged.

During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a “no shock advised” message. This indicates that:

A) she is not in ventricular fibrillation
B) the AED detected patient motion.
C) she has a pulse and does not need CPR.
D) the AED has detected asystole.

A) she is not in ventricular fibrillation

The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because: A. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it. B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. C. its use does not require the presence of ALS personnel. D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy.

B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation.

In contrast to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation:

A) delivers all shocks at 360 joules.
B) begins with 300 joules and escalates.
C) requires a lower energy setting.
D) is only effective for ventricular tachycardia.

C) requires a lower energy setting.

A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? A. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. B. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. D. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.

C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?

A) generalized weakness
B) heart rate less than 60 beats/min
C) syncope or dizziness
D) a rapid heart rate

A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. B. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. C. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. D. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.

D. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.

After assisting your patient with his or her nitroglycerin, you should:

A) place the patient in a recumbent position in case he or she faints.
B) reassess the blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. (low blood pressure)
C) avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache.
D) perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses.

B) reassess the blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension.

Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS.A) four
B) two
C) three
D) five

When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin?

A) difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep
B) an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion
C) sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes
D) chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest

D) chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct?

A) Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.
B) The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light.
C) A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient.
D) Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum.

A) Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. severe headache.

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by:
A) contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries.
B) increasing the amount of work that is placed on the myocardium.
C) dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.
D) constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.

C) dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger
A.) Furosemide (Lasix)
B.) Aspirin
C.) Oxygen
D.) Digoxin (Lanoxin)

Which of the following is of LEAST pertinence when obtaining medical history information from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? A. history of cigarette smoking B. history of previous heart attack C. presence of personal risk factors D. family history of hypertension

D. family history of hypertension

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

A 66-year-old woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 minutes ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive medications. When you assess her, you find that her blood pressure is significantly higher in her left arm than it is in her right arm. What are her signs and symptoms MOST indicative of? A. unstable angina B. dissecting aortic aneurysm C. AMI D. hypertensive emergency

dissecting aortic aneurysm

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: A. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. C. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours. D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.

B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. 

Common signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A. pallor, cool skin, and a temporary loss of hearing. B. syncope, a weak pulse, and bleeding from the ears. C. tachycardia, pain behind the eyes, and weakness. D. a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness.

D. a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. B. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. C. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. D. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.

A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. 

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: A. nitroglycerin for her chest pain. B. ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. D. placing her in an upright position.

D. placing her in an upright position.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should:

A) begin ventilatory assistance.
B) obtain baseline vital signs.
C) attach the automated external defibrillator (AED) immediately.
D) apply a nonrebreathing mask.

A) begin ventilatory assistance.

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure? A. hypertension and tachycardia B. hypotension and flat jugular veins C. the presence of rales in the lungs D. trouble breathing while lying down

B. hypotension and flat jugular veins

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:

A) widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.
B) a profound increase in the patient's heart rate.
C) decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.
D) hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting.

C) decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.

The purpose of defibrillation is to: A. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. B. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. C. improve the chance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) being successful in resuscitation. D. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.

A. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.

Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. extra ventricular beats D. ventricular tachycardia

D. ventricular tachycardia

Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: A. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases. B. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood. C. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion. D. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.

D. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by:

A) ventricular fibrillation.
B) congestive heart failure.
C) cardiogenic shock.
D) severe bradycardia.

A) ventricular fibrillation.

Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for:

A) a cardiac arrhythmia. B) significant hypotension. C) congestive heart failure. D) right ventricular failure.

C) congestive heart failure.

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: A. use medical terminology. B. use the patient's own words. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. document his or her own perception.

B. use the patient's own words.

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they:

A) are elderly.
B) are in denial.
C) cannot afford it.
D) do not trust EMTs.

Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct? A. It often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes.
B. It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest.
C. Nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes.
D. It is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling.

B. It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest.

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. irregular heartbeat. B. sudden unexplained sweating. C. shortness of breath or dyspnea. D. pain exacerbated by breathing.

D. pain exacerbated by breathing.

Prompt transport of a patient with a suspected AMI is important because: A. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy. B. 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes. C. nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department. D. many patients with an AMI die within 6 hours.

A. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy.

When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because:

A) angina and AMI present identically.
B) angina usually occurs after an AMI.
C) the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field.
D) most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI

C) the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field.

Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and AMI? A. AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia. B. Anginal pain typically subsides with rest. C. Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris. D. Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes.

B. Anginal pain typically subsides with rest.

Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: A. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack. B. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. C. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate. D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.

B. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. 

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypertension. C. diabetes mellitus. D. elevated cholesterol.

An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when:

A) the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood.
B) coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart.
C) myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen.
D) the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions.

C) myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen.

Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called: A. angina pectoris. B. arteriosclerosis. C. acute ischemia. D. atherosclerosis.

Ischemic heart disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery. B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. C. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. D. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.

B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium.

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: A. on the dorsum of the foot.
B. in the fossa behind the knee.
C. behind the medial malleolus.
D. above the lateral malleolus.

C. behind the medial malleolus.

When afterload increases: A. the volume of venous blood that returns to the right atrium increases. B. the amount of resistance that the ventricle must beat against decreases. C. it becomes harder for the ventricle to push blood through the blood vessels. D. the blood pressure falls because of significant dilation of the blood vessels.

C. it becomes harder for the ventricle to push blood through the blood vessels. 

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: A. a rapid heart beat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria. D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? A. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. B. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. C. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. D. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.

C. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse.

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. abdomen. D. legs.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should:

A) begin ventilatory assistance.
B) obtain baseline vital signs.
C) attach the automated external defibrillator (AED) immediately.
D) apply a nonrebreathing mask.

A) begin ventilatory assistance.